More on Matt 28:19
Wednesday, 11. January 2006, 04:49:09
concluding statement of the gospel. What may not be quite so obvious are the
compositional implications of the pericope (Matt 28:16-20) in Matthew's overall
purpose. Essentially, it ties together the major themes of the Gospel of
Matthew, and functions as a reminder of the introduction to the gospel (Matt 1),
which demonstrates that Jesus is the fulfillment of redemptive history.
Functionally, it introduces us to one of the major implications of that
fulfillment, which is not "the end of the age" but the beginning of God's
purpose to submit all nations to his heavenly rule. It is on the legal
authority (Grk., εξουσια, EXOUSIA) of the resurrected and (soon-to-be) ascended
Christ that the church is sent forth to conquer.
2. As part of this, the baptismal formula is introducted. The preposition
"into" (εις, EIS) is used to indicate that the change of relationship occurs
with regard to the recipients of the baptism: they enter into a covenant
relationship with person's named as the object of the prepositions. This
passage is also seen as significant in the replacement of circumcision with
baptism as *the* covenant sign of ownership by God placed upon his people.
3. The use of the word "name" followed particularly by the first epexetical
genitive "father" would immediately call to mind the divine name of the Old
Testament. The time of the Gentiles is at hand, the time prophesied of old when
salvation would be made readily available to "all who call upon the name of the
Lord." What is especially significant here is that Matthew does not stop with
simply the Father, but adds two more epexegetical genitives in order to qualify
"the name," that of the Son and the Spirit. These are grammatically coordinate
with "the Father" and further qualify "the name." The disciples to be are
baptized not only in the name of the Father, but also of the Son and Spirit.
This further accents the functional or modal equality of the three names, which
are actually one name, grammatically speaking.
Therefore, the context of the passage, and particularly the concluding nature of
the text at the end of Matthew's narrative, strongly implies the Trinitarian
nature of God. While the language may not be that of the Nicene creed, the
underlying truths which contributed to the later Trinitarian formulations are
nonetheless present.








BarryHofstetter # 16. January 2006, 15:54
Barry,
An excellent post!
I want to emphasize a point that you are making that may be lost on
some. It is not merely the use of the word 'name' or the reference
to 'baptizing' or the coordination of 'the Holy Spirit' with 'the
Father' and 'the Son' that warrants understanding this text in a
Trinitarian way. It is the way these elements all converge in this
context. It is being 'baptized in the name of' followed by 'the
Father' (whom we already knew to be God) 'and the Son' (whom the
Gospel has already revealed to be 'God with us,' 1:23, and whom the
disciples just worshiped, 28:17) 'and the Holy Spirit.'
There is a reason why some anti-Trinitarians even dispute the
authenticity of this verse: it is actually a very strong proof text
for three divine persons.
In Christ's service,
Robert M. Bowman, Jr.
Center for Biblical Apologetics