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Bible Studies in the Digital Age

James the Lord's Brother—An Apostle?

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DEWAYNE DULANEY


Introduction


One of the most interesting problems of New Testament interpretation and translation is whether James the Lord's brother, the oldest of Jesus' earthly brothers, is referred to as an apostle in Galatians 1:19 and 1 Corinthians 15:7, as certain others outside the Twelve and Paul seem to be. In the case of Gal. 1:19, at least, one can find commentaries and Bible versions on both sides of the question. While the King James and the majority of English Bibles do refer to James as an apostle in Gal.1:19, the NIV (New International Version), the most widely-used English version, does not. Nor does the update to the NIV, the TNIV (Today's New International Version—2001), as well as several other modern versions, including the translation of Brother Hugo McCord. Both the NIV and the TNIV say, “I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord's brother”.


This brief look at the question will first consider the origin of the Greek word for apostle, apóstolos (ἀπόστολος); give the Greek text of Gal. 1:19 and an interlinear (word-for-word) translation; and then it will summarize the view of F.F. Bruce on the use of the term in Gal. 1:19 given in the New International Greek Testament Commentary (Eerdmans, 1982). Bruce is an outstanding evangelical scholar who is both a first-rate student and teacher, and generally conservative theologically. (For a good summary of the NT evidence as a whole, Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words should be consulted under "Apostle"). Under that section, I will also give the views of some other scholars who agree with Bruce. Lastly, I will offer some personal concluding observations.


I. Origin and Meaning of apóstolos


Apóstolos (ἀπόστολος) derives from the verb apostéllo (ἀποστέλλω), according to J. Harold Greenlee, A New Testament Greek Morpheme Lexicon, p. 18. The most prominent meaning of apostéllo in the Greek Bible is "send away (out) someone" (Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek Lexicon, p. 98; hereafter BAGD); this is used of God sending the prophets, Jesus sending the disciples, and of Jesus being sent by God. It can also be used of sending an embassy (an ambassador) to someone, Luke 19:14. This basic idea of sending someone as a messenger carries over into the various uses of the noun apóstolos, including those where God the Father or Jesus is sending someone directly or someone is being sent by a congregation, or local group of Christians (BAGD, 99-100.) These two usages are the most pertinent for our study.


II. Greek Text of Gal. 1:19 and Interlinear Translation


Before we look at Bruce's view, here is the Greek text of the disputed verse and an interlinear (word-for-word) translation:


1. In Greek script:


ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ κυρίου.


2. In transliteration, with interlinear translation:


héteron dè tōn apostólōn ouk eidon ei mē Iákōbon tòn adelphòn tou kyríou


Other -- of the apostles not I saw except? James the brother of the Lord.


It should be noted that apostólōn (ἀποστόλων) could mean "messengers" (or even "missionaries") and that ei mē ( εἰ μὴ) could mean "only" (as it does in Galatians 1:7), "but", or "just". These alternate translations need to be kept in mind as this study continues. This is why I put a question mark with the meaning “except” for the Greek ei mē (εἰ μὴ) in the interlinear translation above.


III. Bruce's View of the Use of "apostle" in Gal. 1:19, and Some Others Who Agree with His View


The key point for the interpreter and translator is whether the phrase ei mē ("except/only") just refers to the verb phrase ouk eidon ("I did not see"), or whether it refers to the entire preceding clause , beginning with héteron ("other"). Determining this will tell us whether or not Paul is referring to James as an apostle in some sense.


Bruce holds that the most natural way to understand Paul's Greek is "'The only other apostle I saw [apart from Cephas] was James the Lord's brother" and that it is less natural to take it to mean "'I saw none of the other apostles, but I did see James the Lord's brother'" (citing J.G. Machen, Galatians, 76-80). He believes it would be difficult to improve on J.B. Lightfoot's observation, who says εἰ μὴ has (as always) exceptive force, and that in this case "'the sense of ἕτερον ["other"] naturally links it with εἰ μὴ, from which it cannot be separated without harshness, and ἕτερον carries τῶν ἀποστόλων ["of the apostles"] with it'" (Lightfoot, Galatians, 84f).


Bruce adds that a good grammatical parallel to the present construction, with the pronoun in the negative clause qualified by a genitive, is 1 Corinthians 1:14, oudéna hymōn ebáptisa ei mē Kríspon kai Gáïov (οὐδένα ὑμῶν ἐβάπτισα εἰ μὴ Κρίσπον καὶ Γάϊον), "I baptized none of you but Crispus and Gaius" (where Crispus and Gaius are included in hymōn ["you"]). Where the exception only relates to the negated verb, the context makes this clear, as in Galatians 2:16, ou dikaioutai ánthrōpos ex érgōn nómou ei mē dià písteōs, (οὐ δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος ἐξ ἔργων νόμου ἐὰν μὴ διὰ πίστεως) "one is not justified by legal works but [one is justified] through faith". He says further, "There is nothing in the present context to suggest that here the exception relates to οὐκ εἶδον ["I did not see"] only."


Then Bruce concludes, "Probably few would have questioned the rendering here preferred but for misgivings about the designation of James as an apostle. But there is nothing anomalous in the designation, so far as Paul's usage of apóstolos is concerned. He clearly did not restrict the designation to the Twelve. If, in the summary of resurrection appearances in 1 Cor. 15:5-7 he links the appearance to Cephas with a following appearance to 'the twelve' (to whose number Cephas belonged), his linking of the appearance to James with a following appearance to 'all the apostles' suggests that he included James among 'all the apostles'." (Galatians, 100-101)


Some other scholars who agree with Bruce include Marvin R. Vincent and A.T. Robertson. Both men produced now-classic volumes of word studies on the Greek New Testament. Vincent comments (based on the KJV wording): “Save James (εἰ μὴ). With the usual exceptive sense. I saw none save James. Not, I saw none other of the apostles, but I saw James. James is counted as an apostle, though not reckoned among the twelve” (New Testament Word Studies, Vol. 4, 673). Robertson observed, “...James, the brother of the Lord, is here termed an apostle, though not one of the twelve[,] as Barnabas is later so called” (Word Pictures in the New Testament, no pg. # [software edition]). Robertson also produced a massive (over 1000 pages) grammar of New Testament Greek that still is a standard reference work. On the use of the crucial phrase ei mē (εἰ μὴ) in our passage he states, “ εἰ μὴ may make exception to a preceding negative as in Gal. 1:19...” (A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, 1025). He does concede, however, that “The effect here is to make εἰ μὴ seem adversative instead of exceptive. Cf. Mt. 12:4” (Ibid.).


IV. Some Personal Observations


My own study of the uses of ei mē and apóstolos in the Greek New Testament convinces me that Bruce's arguments are generally sound, though at first I was one of those he refers to as having misgivings about the term "apostle" being applied to James, the Lord's brother. (But this is based more on our English usage than the Greek.) But if James is in fact referred to as an apostle, in what sense was he one?


As Vine and others have pointed out, the New Testament seems to use the term "apostle" in both a narrow sense and a broader sense, both senses being based on the meaning "messenger" inherent in the Greek. In the narrow sense the term applies to the Twelve, Matthias (who was chosen to replace Judas Iscariot, Acts 1:15-26), and Paul--men who were chosen directly by Jesus as his inspired messengers to the world (Acts 1:1-8; Gal. 1:1, 11-12) and as authoritative spokesmen for God to the early church.


The term "apostle" in the broad sense is used of Barnabas as well as Paul in Acts 14:4, 14 (referring to their work as missionaries from Antioch, Acts 13:1-3), and apparently in 1 Cor. 9:1-6. In 2 Cor. 8:23 it is used in the Greek text for two unnamed Christians who helped Titus bring the offering for the poor saints in Judea; these were sent by some of the congregations who contributed. In Phil. 2:25 Epaphroditus is referred to this way, as he was sent by the Philippians to help Paul. Paul uses it in 1 Thess. 2:6 of his work and that of Silas and Timothy as missionaries. Possibly it is also used this way of Andronicus and Junias in Rom. 16:7 (the Greek can mean either that they were "apostles" or that they were honored by the apostles). While Paul does refer to various miracles he performed as “signs that mark an apostle” (2 Cor. 12:12, NIV) to demonstrate he was a true apostle, unlike his opponents, it is also recorded in Acts 14-15 that Barnabas worked miracles along with Paul (Acts 14:3; 15:12).


Now, where does James the Lord's brother fit in? James was not a disciple of Jesus before the Resurrection (compare Jn. 7:5 with 1 Cor. 15:7 and Acts 1:14). Yet, as 1 Cor. 15:7 notes, he was granted an appearance by the risen Jesus. As far as the criteria of Acts 1:15f go, he met the requirements of apostleship as well as Paul did. (Neither were followers of Jesus during his personal ministry, but both were witnesses of the resurrection.) If this James was, as I believe, the writer of the NT letter of James, then he was an inspired man. This also seems borne out by the fact that his statement at the Jerusalem conference was accepted by the Twelve, including Peter (Acts 15).


Yet, nothing is ever mentioned of him being specially commissioned by Christ as Paul was (Acts 9:15). This would seem to be the key difference between an apostle in the narrow sense and one in the broad sense. To my mind, James was an apostle in the broad sense, which was broad enough to include both those like Paul with a special commission from Christ, and those without such. This is the only way I can explain why James is referred to as an apostle along with Cephas (Peter) in Gal. 1 (and why Barnabas is called one in Acts 14 along with Paul).


To avoid confusion, I would suggest that those producing new translations of the New Testament, if they use the term "apostle", reserve it for the Twelve and Paul, and translate the other instances by "messenger(s)"/"representative(s)"/"delegate(s)" or "missionary(ies)" as appropriate in each context. Phillips takes the second approach in Galatians 1:19, using “messengers” to translate the plural of apóstolos. In my translation of Philippians (unpublished), I translated apóstolos in 2:25, which refers to Epaphroditus, as “missionary” in the text, with “messenger” as an alternate translation in the margin. Personally, I favor replacing the term "apostle" altogether in translation when used in the narrow sense with a phrase such as "Christ's messenger" or "Christ's ambassador" to better bring out the flavor of the Greek.


I hope this study will be of service in looking at this question.


(Next time, I'll begin a series on how we can find Christ's church today, called “Marks of the New Testament Church.”)




WORKS CITED


Bauer, Walter. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. Translated and adapted by William F. Arndt and F. Wilbur Gingrich. 2nd ed. Revised and augmented by F. Wilbur Gingrich and Frederick W. Danker. Chicago and London: The University of Chicago Press, 1979.


Bruce, F. F. The Epistle to the Galatians: A Commentary on the Greek Text. The New International Greek Testament Commentary. Exeter, United Kingdom: The Paternoster Press and Grand Rapids: William B. Eerdsmans Publishing Company, ©1982; rpt., 1990.


Greek text of Galatians 1:19 found at The Online Greek Bible: Greek New Testament Resources, http://www.greekbible.com/. Text used is the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, 26th ed., © 1979, Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft , Stuttgart and The United Bible Societies' The Greek New Testament, 3rd ed., © 1975, United Bible Societies, London.


Greenlee, J. Harold. A New Testament Greek Morpheme Lexicon. Grand Rapids: Zondervan Publishing House, 1983.


Image of P51, papyrus manuscript of Galatians 1:2-10,13,16-20, A.D. 400, found at http://163.1.169.40/, in P. Oxy: Oxyrhynchus Online, Ashmolean Library, Oxford, England, http://www.papyrology.ox.ac.uk/POxy/ Image © Egypt Exploration Society.


Mac Gallery http://www.geocities.com/Heartland/Ridge/1217/MacGalleryIndex.html (No copyright info listed): I found the "Made with a Mac" banner here.


Microsoft Office Online: http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/default.aspx (Clip art and photos). I found the image of the "Roman Librarian" (by the "You're Invited to Comment" statement) at this site. © 2008 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.


Robertson, A.T. Word Pictures in the New Testament. Digital edition: module in MacSword Bible study software for Macintosh OS X, version 1.3 beta. Available at http://www.macsword.com/. (A version for Windows is available at The Sword Project, Crosswire Bible Society, http://www.crosswire.org/sword/index.jsp. Click on the Software link to go to the download page.)


____________. A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research. 4th ed. Nashville: Broadman Press, 1934.


Vincent, Marvin R. Word Studies in the New Testament. Vol. 4. Digital edition, Adobe Acrobat Reader PDF file. The AGES Digital Library Commentary. Books for the Ages. AGES Software, ver. 2.0. Albany, Oregon, ©1996, 1997. Found at Christian Hospitality's Biblical Archives, http://www.christianhospitality.org/archives.htm.


Vine, W.E., Merrill F. Unger, and William White, Jr. An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words. Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1984.


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All original material on this blog is copyright © 2007 Dewayne and Mary Dulaney. It may only be reproduced for nonprofit personal, church, or educational use. Credit must be given to the author.


The Apple logo and Mac are trademarks of Apple Inc. (Apple Computer). © 2008 Apple Inc.


Microsoft is a trademark of Microsoft Corporation. © 1985-2001, 2008 Microsoft Corporation.


Scripture marked NIV taken from the HOLY BIBLE, NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION®. Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society. Used by permission of Zondervan Publishing House. All rights reserved.


Scripture marked TNIV taken from the HOLY BIBLE, TODAY'S NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION®. Copyright © 2001. 2005 by International Bible Society. All rights reserved.


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—Dewayne Dulaney



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Comments

Unregistered user Tuesday, November 3, 2009 7:44:22 PM

Justin Prawat writes: There are some (including Martin Luther) who believe that the book of James is not the true work of an apostle. The book clearly states that you must have "faith" with "works" in order to go to heaven. This is in direct contradiction to Paul's teaching; salvation is freely given to those who believe. jprawat@oasis-granger.com

Dewayne DulaneyLoquor Tuesday, December 29, 2009 2:46:24 AM

Dear Justin:

Thank you for visiting my blog and for your comment.

Both topics you raise are important, and I hope the following comments will be helpful.

First I'll talk about the inspiration of James and other New Testament books not written by one of the original Twelve Apostles or by the Apostle Paul. Second, I'll comment on the relationship between faith and "works" in regard to salvation.

It is a common misunderstanding that only those NT (New Testament) books written by one of the Twelve Apostles, or by Paul, are inspired, or guided by God in their writing, and thus without error and authoritative. The New Testament itself indicates otherwise.

Jesus promised that he would send "prophets and sages and teachers" (Matthew 23:34, TNIV; NIV has "wise men" for "sages"). He told his original apostles that he would send the Holy Spirit to them to help them. The Spirit would remind them of Jesus' teaching, guide them into all truth, and tell them what was yet to come.—John 14:26, 16:13-15.

These men received their prophetic gift and began to exercise it on the day of Pentecost, shortly after Jesus returned to heaven (Acts 2). On that occasion, the Apostle Peter confirmed that this gift of prophecy, as well as the miraculous ability to speak in foreign languages ("tongues"), was given to carry out God's promises through the Old Testament prophet Joel (Acts 2:17-18, quoting Joel 2:28-32). You will notice, however, as you read Acts 2:17-18 and context, that neither Peter nor Joel limited the gift of prophecy to the apostles of Jesus. As the book of Acts continues, numerous other Christians are mentioned who had the prophetic gift. Among these were Agabus (Acts 11:27-28; 21:10-14), Judas and Silas (Acts 15:32), some unnamed disciples (Acts 19:6), and four daughters of Philip the evangelist (Acts 21:8-9).

Indeed, the Apostle Paul, who was not one of the original Twelve Apostles, had the prophetic gift himself (1 Corinthians 13:9, 14:6, 36-38). He stated that the gift of prophecy was part of the church's foundation along with the ministry of the apostles. In Ephesians 2:19-20, he wrote that God's household (the church, 1 Tim. 3:14-15) was built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, with Christ as the cornerstone. He wrote further that the gift of prophecy was given to the church to strengthen and encourage it (1 Corinthians 14:1-5). In Ephesians 4:7-16 Paul wrote that prophets were given to the church along with apostles, evangelists, and shepherds who teach (pastors) to help the church become mature in faith.

Paul, although not one of the Twelve, wrote 13 of the 27 books of the New Testament. Five other individuals, also not among the Twelve, were NT prophets who wrote books: Mark, Luke, James, Jude, and the anonymous author of Hebrews (Hebrews 2:3 indicates the author was not an apostle). We see from 1 Timothy 5:18 that such books were considered just as inspired and authoritative as others given to the church. Jesus' statement "The worker deserves his wages", recorded in Luke 10:7, is quoted by Paul in 1 Timothy 5:18 and classed as "Scripture" along with a quotation from Deuteronomy 25:4. This indicates Paul recognized Luke as divinely inspired. Of these NT prophets, all but Luke wrote 1 book each. Luke, besides the Gospel of Luke, also wrote the book of Acts. The Apostle Peter likewise recognized the inspiration and authority of Paul's letters, calling them Scripture (2 Peter 3:15-16).

As for James, the apostles themselves recognized his teaching as authoritative and approved by God: see Acts 15:12-33 (James' views accepted by apostles and elders); cf. Galatians 2:9—James was a "pillar" of the Jerusalem church, along with the apostles Peter and John. We need not hesitate, then, in accepting James as inspired by God and authoritative. If something he says appears to conflict with other Scripture, then the fault lies in our knowledge or understanding of what the Bible teaches, not in James' writing.

This brings us to your second topic, the relationship between faith, works, and salvation. This topic has been greatly misunderstood, I believe, and because of this, requires much careful and prayerful study. I intend later to write some articles for the blog dealing with this topic in more detail. However, I will deal with it briefly here in the hope it will help you as you are thinking about it now. First, I'll mention some things that deal with the topic generally, then deal specifically with James' statement.

You are right that "salvation is freely given". Nothing anyone can do can earn salvation, no matter how hard one tries to be good and not do wrong. Such man-made "works" cannot save. Scriptures such as Ephesians 2:8-9 and Romans 4:1-5 indicate this is true. And certainly, one must have faith to be saved and go to heaven (Hebrews 11:6; John 8:24). That faith must be placed in Jesus, the only way to the Father (John 14:6).

Faith, however, does not always lead to salvation. Jesus himself indicated this on at least three occasions. In Matthew 7:21-27, close to the end of the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus describes some disciples of his who would not enter heaven. They acknowledged Jesus as Lord, so we know they had faith. They even did miracles. Yet, Jesus tells us he will not acknowledge them on the Day of Judgement, and that they will not be with him in heaven. Why? Notice his words in verse 21: "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only those who do the will of my Father who is in heaven." (my emphasis). Compare Luke 11:28, where Jesus said, "Blessed...are those who hear the word of God and obey it." These people were no better off spiritually than those mentioned by James (James 2:18-19) whom he compared to the demons. The demons believe there is one God, and shudder, or tremble. Yet this faith does not save them. Notice some examples of demonic faith in the Gospels. In Mark, for instance, we see in 1:23-27, 34; 3:11; 5:6-8 (and context) several encounters between Jesus and evil spirits. They believed Jesus was the Son of God, but they came out of people due to Jesus' power over them, not because of their faith.

Later in Matthew's account, in Mt. 10:32, we read these words of Jesus: "Whoever publicly acknowledges me I will also acknowledge before my Father in heaven". Now, take a look at this statement in John 12:42-43: "Yet at the same time many even among the leaders believed in him. But because of the Pharisees they would not openly acknowledge their faith for fear they would be put out of the synagogue; for they loved human glory more than the glory of God." Notice the words I have bolded: "many...believed in him but...they would not openly acknowledge their faith". In light of Jesus own words in Matthew 10:32, can we say these people were saved? They had faith, but would not exercise it.

Now, notice the third occasion where Jesus talks about this, in John chapter 8. In 8:23 Jesus states that if one does not believe in him, that person will die in his/her sins. We read a few verses later in 8:30 that some who heard him did believe. Now, notice what follows in vv. 31-37. Jesus speaks to those who had believed (v. 31), and tells them that they must hold to his teaching (other translations, "keep his word") so he can set them free from slavery to sin. He tells these people, who had believed, that they were looking for a way to kill him, because they have no room for his word in their hearts! He tells them further in v. 51 that if they obey or keep his word they will not see death. All through this exchange, despite the fact that these people had believed, they act in ways contrary to God's will. They do not accept Jesus' words and even accuse him of being demon-possessed. Jesus calls them children of the devil. Now, consider this: would it be safe to say people whom Jesus called children of the devil were saved?

Later, shortly before his death, Jesus told the apostles in John 14:15, 21-24 that one who loves Jesus will obey his teachings/commands. We know the apostles had faith. Jesus knew it also, yet tells them this anyway.

These statements of Jesus show us that faith, in order to save, must be faith that trusts God and obeys God's commands. Now this kind of faith is spoken of as saving faith all through the Scriptures, in reference both to initial salvation and to living a life that pleases God. You will remember Ephesians 2:8-10, referenced earlier, which points out salvation is by grace through faith, not by human works. Yet that same passage, in verse 10, states "For we are God’s handiwork, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do".

When we have the faith that pleases God, we will do good works. Notice it said that such works are those that "God prepared...for us to do". Such works are not human works that seek to earn salvation; they are God's own works, given by him for us to do. Since this is so, how can we be saved if we refuse to do them? Repeatedly, the Christian life is spoken of as one that is obedient to the truth of God's word: Acts 16:4; Rom. 2:16-18; Gal. 5:7; Phil. 2:12; 2 Thess. 3:14; Heb. 3:17-4:11; 1 Jn. 2:3-6.

Initial salvation, though by grace, also is through faith that obeys. Notice these Scriptures:

Rom. 1:5; 16:26 (cf. Acts 5:32; 6:7): Paul preaches the gospel that calls people to faith and obedience.

Rom. 6:15-18— thanks be to God, they obeyed the form of teaching (repentance and baptism into Christ); cf. Acts 2:38; 22:16.

Hebrews 5:9— Jesus is the source of salvation to those who obey him.

One can, and must, obey the gospel to be saved: Rom. 5:13; 2 Thess. 1:8; 1 Pet. 1:22; 2:8; 4:17.

This active faith also was what made Abraham pleasing to God. In Genesis itself we have two statements to this effect: Gen. 26:1-5— Isaac and descendants to be blessed because Abraham obeyed God; Gen. 22:15-18—Abraham blessed because he obeyed God when prepared to offer Isaac as a sacrifice.

We also see throughout the great faith chapter, Hebrews 11, that the Old Testament people who believed God had this kind of faith. Faith and obedience are tied together all through the chapter, with statements like "By faith...X did Y..."; for instance, "By faith Abraham, when called to go...obeyed and went..." (v. 9).

In light of all this, James is not contradicting earlier statements by any means. Both what he says about Abraham and Rahab fit this same pattern: faith at any stage must trust God and obey what he says in order to save. Otherwise, it is no better than demonic faith.

Justin, it is my hope that you will prayerfully consider the Scriptures I have mentioned and be a believer who has saving faith. If I can assist you further in any way, please ask.

In Christian love,
Dewayne Dulaney